I believe you are wrong because the Bible does not support this view at all. In fact, the negative consequence of your view is that when you are in the Tribulation, you won't realize it, because you assumed you would have been raptured if it was. And, you will even accuse the brethren raptured at the first rapture who were received first according to readiness. Fellowship therefore is not only based on the finished work of the cross but the timing of rapture as well, for the finished work of the cross leads us to believe there are advanced parties and harbingers in every sphere. The parousia of Christ is no exception.
  The reason there is no rapture or resurrection mentioned at Rev. 19.11-21 is because Christ has returned, whence the saints at the first rapture and the last trumpet have already been raptured. That is why we read, "And the armies which are in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white [and] pure" (Rev. 19.14). Jesus returns with His saints in Rev. 19, because they had already been raptured.

Evidence #1 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Why does the resurrection have to be mentioned at the split second of Christ stepping down on the mount of olives? It would not make sense for the resurrections and raptures to happen at this point but some point before, both at first rapture and the harvest rapture (Rev. 14.14-16). Note that the final harvest rapture happens at the start of the last trumpet, but before the bowls commence. The bowls are poured in the last trumpet which takes 24 months. If you don't know how the 24 is derived please ask.

Evidence #2 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Wouldn't it be more accurately stated the two different events towards the second coming of Christ (parousia) over the 7 years are the first rapture and the last trumpet rapture? Those who overcometh, like Christ, who suffered, are ready to be received at the first rapture, whereas not all those raptured at the last trumpet will receive the reward of reigning in the 1000 years.

Evidence #3 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  That we do not know when the first rapture will occur because Jesus comes like a thief in the night is certainly true, but why does knowing the day of Christ's return once the Great Tribulation has started prevent a last trumpet harvest resurrection and rapture of the saints?

Evidence #4 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Rapture cannot take place at Rev. 4.1 (see my response to Evidence #6). That the saints return with Christ in Rev. 19 does not prevent a rapture at the last trumpet which commences 24 months before Christ appears in Person.

Evidence #5 is overassuming and a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.

  This is called the argument from silence. However we cannot say there is no mention of the saints until Rev. 22: "didst purchase unto God with thy blood men of every tribe, and tongue, and people, and nation" (5.10), “the saints” (17.6), and "the armies which are in heaven" (19.14). Unquestionably the word “church” is not used, but who can say that those in view in the above examples do not belong to the church? Furthermore, “the things which must shortly come to pass” (including the Great Tribulation) are shown to “his servants” (22.6), and “these things” (including the Great Tribulation) are testified “for the churches” (22.16). These things will not be written if they are not relevant to the church and to the believers.

There is some problems with saying chapters 4 & 5 are yet to be fulfilled if the church is raptured at 4.1.

1) 4.1 speaks of being raptured in the Spirit, not a bodily rapture: "Straightway I was in the Spirit" (v.2). How can chapters 2 & 3 speak of the church and there not be a clear word given of her rapture afterward?

2) Should not the church be seen in chapters 4 & 5 if it was raptured before the Tribulation? Since the elders in 4.4,10 and 5.8 cannot represent the church (see my response to Evidence #7). How can the elders, if they were the church, not be mentioned from 19.5 through to chapters 22? Is it possible the members of the church will not exist in the new heavens and new earth? How can she just disappear in the end?

3) Since chapter 5 shows the glory which the Lamb receives in heaven, can we say He must wait 2000 years before He will receive His glory?

4) The praise which He receives in 5.13 agrees with Phil. 2.10. He receives the name which is above all names due to His resurrection and ascension as described in Phil. 2.9. How can Rev. 5.13 describe a scene 2000 years later?

5) Why should the new song in 5.9 be sung 2000 years later? Has not the work of redemption already been done? Why cannot the new song be sung at once?

6) "As though it had been slain" (5.6) is, in the original, rendered "as though it had been newly slain". This clearly proves that this scene is the ascension of the Lord. The death of the Lord is forever fresh so as to be newly slain.

7) 4.8 records the four living creatures as saying: "The Lord God, the Almighty, who was and who is and who is to come"-Compare this with 11.17, where the 24 elders are found worshiping God and saying: "O Lord God, the Almighty, who art and who wast"; in the latter instance the words "who was to come" are not said, thus intimating that he return of the Lord cannot be before 4.8 but after 4.8.

8. In 5.6 the seven Spirits of God are "sent forth into all the earth"-Many we not ask, then, what the Holy Spirit will be doing in the Great Tribulation as He is sent out into all the earth? We know that the Holy Spirit comes down after the ascension of the Lord Jesus. It is during the dispensation of the church that He is sent out by the Lord.

In view of these eight points we may conclude that chapter 4 depicts the scene of the daily presence of God, which is the natural situation in heaven; while chapter 5 speaks of the Lord's ascension, for in it we are told of "a Lamb standing, as though it had been newly slain" (5.6). This is repeated for John's benefit-"After these things [of being shown the church age in Rev. 2 & 3 and the call to overcometh]...a door opened in heaven" (4.1). This, therefore, is not a continuation of the seven church periods, but a sequel to the vision given in chapter 1-3.

"Come up hither" is spoken to John personally; it should not be interpreted as a type of the rapture of the church.

Evidence #6 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Rev. 3.10 needs to be explained for a condition is given for the first rapture. As well, there are ten other reasons why the 24 elders do not represent the glorious church.

1) Elder is never the name of the church. It would be like saying the whole church is made up of elders.

2) The number of the elders is not the number of the church. The church number is seven or multiples of seven, but 24 is not a multiple.

3) The church cannot have the throne and the crown before Jesus has His. The one who sits on the throne in 4.2 is God the Father (the Lamb is still standing, according to 5.6). The 24 elders are sitting on the thrones, and they all wear crowns of gold as described in 4.4. How can the church be sitting when the Lord Jesus is still standing? Jesus will not be King in the millennium till chapter 20. After 19.4 there is no more trace of the elders. What happened to this glorious church afterward and why would they still be mentioned at 19.4 if the church does not pass through the Tribulation?

(Please ask for the other 7 reasons-I assure you they are most wonderful reasons).

Evidence #7 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Yes, Christ returns with His saints. How does this prevent a rapture at the last trumpet? (This point has been repeated several times).

Evidence #8 is an overassuming of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Yes, everything said here is true, but you fail to read the whole verse which indicates a condition for first rapture.

"Because thou didst keep the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of trial, that [hour] which is to come upon the whole world, to try them that dwell upon the earth" (Rev. 3.10).

What is the condition? To "keep the word of my patience". Do all Christians do this? No. Therefore, first rapture is for the church, but according to readiness, so that not all believers who are saved at the time of first rapture will be kept out.

What is meant by “the word of my patience”? Today people revile Him and curse Him, but the Lord neither punishes them nor smites them with lightning and thunder. Such is the patience of Christ in this age. Today we are patient together with Christ. We do not resist. But does every Christian keep the word of His patience in this manner? If so, the whole church would indeed be raptured. If this verse can be used indiscriminately to prove the rapture of the whole church before the Great Tribulation, then people can with equal justification forget the condition “whosoever believeth on him” and erroneously claim that all men are saved. Furthermore, the promise of the Lord here is addressed to the church in Philadelphia, not to the whole church. If the church in Philadelphia can represent the whole church, then we may surmise that the entire church will be raptured before the Great Tribulation. Yet at that time there were actually these seven churches in Asia Minor, and the promise of the Lord was given to but one of these seven. Accordingly, the church in Philadelphia cannot represent the complete church; or else the overcomers in the other six churches mentioned will not be raptured.

Evidence #9 is an overlooking of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Yes, this is not a resurrection, but a gathering of the Israelites back to Israel; but that being the case, how does this disallow a rapture at the last trumpet, for does not Matt. 24.40-41 says there are those taken at the first rapture and other Christians left to be raptured later (at the last trumpet)? Since both the taken and the left are Christians, then there would be two raptures of the church. So like Rev. 3.10, one would need to be watchful and prayerful to be received at the first rapture, otherwise shall be raptured at the last trumpet.

Evidence #10 is arguing a point that does not help itself to misread God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  The "left" are those who are saved, because they were not first "taken" (Matt. 24.40-41) at the first rapture. The left are raptured at the last harvest because they are still "alive" from the martyrdom of the Tribulation. Their rapture will precede the rapture of the unsaved by a thousand years. This points to three separate events: first rapture, harvest rapture and the second coming or appearing of the Lord in Person on the mount of olives (Zech. 14.4).

Evidence #11 is an argument that does not help its view and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Why can't Jesus be married to His bride at the first rapture and last trumpet rapture which the latter precedes the return of Christ by 24 months?

Evidence #12 is an argument that does not help its view and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Since this is not the case and will not happen since the first trumpet rapture takes places 42 months before Christ appears and the last trumpet resurrection and rapture takes place 24 months before Christ appears, then there is no problem.

Evidence #13 is an overlooking of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  One who restraineth is no proper terminology for the Holy Spirit. The Third Person of the Trinity has many different names, such as the Spirit, the Spirit of glory, the Spirit of revelation, etc; and the word “Spirit” is usually present - and even though in one instance the word “Comforter” is used alone, yet from the next clause which follows (“even the Spirit of truth”) it is evident that this has clear reference to the Holy Spirit (John 14.16-17). Never do the Scriptures say the Holy Spirit is “he that restrains”; moreover, how can the Holy Spirit be said to “be taken out of the way”? The Spirit still works in the spirit of believers in the Tribulation. Furthermore, where does the Bible announce that the Holy Spirit is absent during the Great Tribulation? And how can there be the so-called believers of the Great Tribulation if the Holy Spirit is not present? For no one is saved without the Holy Spirit, He who is born of the Spirit is spirit. Moreover, this matter of the Holy Spirit’s presence during the Great Tribulation is clearly shown in Revelation 5: “and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God, sent forth into all the earth” (v.6). The time of the Great Tribulation is the time of the latter rain (see Acts 2.15-21, Joel 2.28-31). The prophecy of Joel was not completely fulfilled on the day of Pentecost. For on that day there were no “wonders in the heaven and in the earth: blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke”; nor was “the sun . . . turned into darkness, and the moon into blood” (Joel 2.30-31). All of these five wonders will be fulfilled around and in the time of the Great Tribulation: blood (first trumpet), fire (first and second trumpets), smoke (fifth trumpet), sun and moon (sixth seal). Pentecost is only a miniature, a foretaste. Peter does not say: “It is fulfilled”; he merely says that “this is that” (Acts 2.16). As a matter of fact, the Holy Spirit is going to do greater work during the time of the Great Tribulation. If there will not be the Holy Spirit present, how can the saints ever endure during the Great Tribulation?

Evidence #14 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  The sheep here refers to the good nations and the goats to the evil nations and peoples. It is not referring to the saved and unsaved. Don't the nations have to be resolved when Christ returns? Who in this parable are the ones to be judged? It tells us that it is to be “all the nations” (v.32). This word “nations” is the same as is translated “the Gentiles” in Matthew 4.15; 6.32; 10.5,18; 12.18; and 20.19,25. It is a Greek word which in its meaning includes all the Gentiles.

If you can't see this, please ask for the proof, and I can supply you with seven other reasons why this is the case.

Evidence #15 is a misreading of God's Word and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.
  Yet, this is not a valid argument for pretribulation rapture onlyism, since those populating earth when Christ returns can still include the nations that remain after the last harvest rapture.

Evidence #16 is an overlooking of some key facts and cannot be admitted as a worthy consideration.